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ISTQB Sample Exam chương V: Test Management (K3)1. The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked. 2. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers. 3. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
v - test control
w - test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
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Các câu hỏi tiếp theo của chương V4. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a) operating systems 5. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement documents
a) auditing conformance to ISO 9000 6. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
b) status accounting of configuration items
c) identification of test versions
d) controlled library access
a) Features to be tested 7. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product to be developed. Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?
b) Incident reports
a) Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests 8. Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?
b) Software delivery is behind schedule
c) Threat to a patient’s life
d) 3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated
a) Number of detected defects, testing cost; 9. A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect registered and enforce the rules about changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking, which method would be best?
b) Number of residual defects in the test object.
c) Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases prepared
d) Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed
a) Logic-based testing10. Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?
b) Use-case-based testing
c) State transition testing
d) Systematic testing according to the V-model
a) Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the testware and the test object 11. What test items should be put under configuration management?
b) Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change control board
c) Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management
d) Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools
a) The test object, the test material and the test environment 12. Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?
b) The problem reports and the test material
c) Only the test objects. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
d) The test object and the test material
(I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management. 13. Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug?
(II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.
(III) The specification was unclear
(IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up
(V) The testers were not certified
a) (I) and (II) are correct
b) (I) through (IV) are correct
c) (III) through (V) are correct
d) (I), (II) and (IV) are correct
a) For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one used British units 14. Which of the following project inputs influence testing?
b) The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure
c) The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding the input error cause
d) Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to
(I) contractual requirements 15. What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?
(II) Legal requirements
(III) Industry standards
(IV) Application risk
(V) Project size
a) (I) through (III) are correct
b) All alternatives are correct
c) (II) and (V) are correct
d) (I), (III) and (V) are correct
a) To specify when to stop the testing activity 16. Which of the following items need NOT to be given in an incident report?
b) To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
c) To ensure that the test case specification is complete
d) To know when a specific test has finished its execution
a) The version number of the test object 17. Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?
b) Test data and used environment
c) Identification of the test case that failed
d) The location and instructions on how to correct the fault
a) As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what will be the most effective way to test the project on hand. 18. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
b) Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project
c) A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule the test-cycles
d) Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place
a) test items 19. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification
a) status accounting of configuration items 20. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution 21. Test managers should not:
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to know when test planning is complete
d) to plan when to stop testing
a) report on deviations from the project plan 22. What information need not be included in a test incident report:
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement
a) how to fix the fault23. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation Standard:
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) the actual and expected outcomes
a) Test items (i.e. software versions) 24. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test. 25. Testware (test cases, test dataset)
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
a) needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code26. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of
b) should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c) is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d) does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released software system
a) The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the system27. An expert based test estimation is also known as
b) The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other means after wards
c) The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test phase
d) The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system
a) Narrow band Delphi 28. During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do?
b) Wide band Delphi
c) Bespoke Delphi
d) Robust Delphi
a) Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer. 29. The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during system testing is to
b) Retest the module and confirm the bug
c) Assign the same bug to another developer
d) Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility
a) Find bugs in the program
b) Check the technical accuracy of the document
c) Ensure the ease of use of the document
d) Ensure that the program is the latest version
30. You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You can not change the resources (work hours, test tools, etc.)What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time.
a) Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time. 31. Item transmittal report is also known as
b) Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur
c) Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing
d) Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided
a) Incident report 32. The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.
b) Release note
c) Review report
d) Audit report
I. Phase injected 33. Which is not the project risks
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed
a) I, II and III
b) I, II and IV
c) II, III and IV
d) I, III and IV
a) Supplier issues 34. Poor software characteristics are
b) Organization factors
c) Technical issues
d) Error-prone software delivered
a) Only Project risks 35. Bug life cycle
b) Only Product risks
c) Project risks and Product risks
d) Project risks or Product risks
a) Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed 36. Which is not the fundamental test process
b) Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
c) Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
d) Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
a) Planning and control 37. A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule.
b) Test closure activities
c) Analysis and design
The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the quality standards established for this product. Which of the following actions would bring this project back on schedule?
a) Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.38. A Project risk includes which of the following:
b) Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
c) Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
d) Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
a) Organizational Factors39. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to:
b) Poor Software characteristics
c) Error Prone software delivered.
d) Software that does not perform its intended functions
i. Determine the test technique to be employed40. Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. 41. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning. 42. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase:
b) Logging the outcome of test execution.
c) Assessing if more tests are needed.
d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.
a) Test Analysis and Design 43. Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
a) Determining the test approach. 44. What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?
b) Preparing test specifications.
c) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
d) Measuring and analyzing results.
a) To communicate how incidents will be managed. 45. In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be begun?
b) To communicate how testing will be performed.
c) To produce a test schedule.
d) To produce a work breakdown structure.
a) After the software or system has been produced. 46. What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?
b) During development.
c) As early as possible.
d) During requirements analysis.
a) To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes. 47. What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?
b) To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
c) To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
d) To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
a) Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives. 48. Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?
b) Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are potential failure areas in the software or system.
c) Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks are typically related to skill and staff shortages.
d) Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues.
a) Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete. 49. Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?
b) Testing is isolated from development.
c) Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
d) Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.
a) An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software.50. For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration Management?
b) An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote the software.
c) An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software than the person who wrote it.
d) An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.
i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled; 51. Which one is not the task of test leader?
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.
a) i, iv, vi.
b) ii, iii, v.
c) i, iii, iv.
d) iv, v, vi.
a. Coordinate the test strategy and plan with project managers and others52. Defect Tracking
b. Decide about the implementation of the test environment
c. Write test summary reports
d. Review and contribute to test plans
a) Is the communication channel between test team and development team 53. What needs to be done when there is an insufficient time for testing?
b) Is the communication channel between testing team and the rest of the team
c) Is the communication channel between the testing team and end users
d) all of the above
1) Do Ad-hoc testing 54. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used during software maintenance?
2) Do usability testing
3) Do sanity testing
4) Do a risk based analysis to prioritize
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 & 4
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
a) Project management plan.55. Test planning should begin
b) Customer support hot line.
c) Software problem reports.
d) Change control board.
a) At the same time that requirement definitions beginsNội dung chi tiết và đáp án
b) When building starts
c) When code build is complete
d) After shipping the first version
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